Fourier series of piece-wise smooth functions
Our goal in this post is to prove the following:
- If
is ``piece-wise smooth,'' then the (complex) Fourier series of converges uniformly to .
Note that the condition in this theorem does not involve the Fourier coefficients of ; hence, it is more direct. That is, we can tell if the Fourier series of a function converges uniformly from the property of the function alone.
Let be the collection of all functions of class such that all derivatives up to the -th order have period .
We say a function is piece-wise smooth if (i.e., continuous) and (i.e., the derivative is square-integrable, not necessarily continuous).
In the following, we will consider the complex Fourier series:
where the Fourier coefficients are
Lemma (Bessel's inequality)
If , then
Proof. Let where are the complex Fourier coefficients of .
Using the definition of , and orthogonality of , we have
But the left-hand side is non-negative. Thus,
The right-hand side is monotone increasing as , and the left-hand side does not depend on . Therefore, (eq:bessel) holds. â–
Remark. Since , we have
â–¡
Theorem
If and , then the (complex) Fourier series of converges uniformly to .
Proof. We use the following theorem (see Complex Fourier series):
- (*) If the series of Fourier coefficients of
converges absolutely, then the Fourier series converges uniformly to at continuous points.
Let denote the complex Fourier coefficients of :
Since by assumption, by applying the above lemma to , we have
Integrating by parts,
That is,
By the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality,
Noting that and (eq:gammaineq), the right-hand side is finite. Thus, . Therefore, by the above Theorem (*), converges uniformly to . â–
The following corollary is the main result of this post:
Corollary
If , then the (complex) Fourier series of converges uniformly to .
Proof. implies and . â–
Corollary (Parseval's equality)
If and , then
Proof. Since converges uniformly to , the left-hand side of (eq:fSn) converges to 0. Thus, the above equality holds. â–
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